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SECTION GENERAL ENGLISH (50 Questions-200 marks)
Directions (Questions 1 to 51 Read the given passage and answer the questions by ticking the correct option from the given option.
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In May 1966, the World Health Organization was authorised to initiate a global campaign to eradicate smallpox. The goal was to eradicate the disease in one decade. Since similar projects for malaria and yellow fever had failed, few believed that smallpox could actually be eradicated. However eleven years after the initial organization of the campaigns, no cases were reported in the field. The strategy was not only to provide mass vaccinations, but also to isolate patients with active smallpox in order to contain the spread of the disease and to break the chain of human transmission Rewards for reporting smallpox assisted in motivating the public to aid health workers. One by one, each smallpox victim was sought out, removed from contact with others and treated At the same time, the entre, village where the victim had lived was vaccinated. Today smallpox is no longer a threat to humanity. Routine vaccinations have been stopped worldwide
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Table of Contents
MAI BHAGO AFPI PREVIOUS PAPER 2016
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1. Which of the following is the title for the passage
(1) The World Health Organization (2) Eradication of Smallpox
(3) smallpox vaccinations (4) Infectious Diseases
2. it can be inferred that
(1) No new cases of smallpox have been reported this year
(2) Malaria and yellow fever have been eliminated
(3) Smallpox victims no longer die when they contract the disease
(4) Smalipox is not transmitted from one person to another
3. which statement does not refer to smallpox
(1) Previous projects had filled (2) People are no longer vaccinated for it.
(3) it was a serious threat (4) None of these
4. According to the paragraph what was the strategy used to eliminate the spread of smallpox?
(1) Vaccination of the entire village
(2) Treatment of invidious victims.
(3) isolation of victims and mass vaccinations
(4) Extensive reporting of outbreaks
5. What was the goal of the campaign against smallpox?
(1) to decrease the spread of smallpox worldwide
(2) To eliminate smallpox worldwide in ten years.
(3) To provide mass vaccinations against smallpox worldwide
(4) To initiate worldwide projects for smallpox, malaria and yellow fever at the same time.
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Directions (Questions 6, 7, 8) From the four options given, choose the word closest in meaning to the given word.
6. Irascible
(1) Temperamental (2) Envious (3) Angry (4) irritable
7. Artful
(1) Astatic (2) Cunning (3) Intelligent (4) Attractive
8. Fatuous
(1) Fastidious (2) Fantastic (3) Funny (4) Silly
Directions (Questions 9, 301: Choose the appropriate antonym for the given word.
9. Vague
(1) Amorphous (2) Nebulous (3) Explicit (4) Obscure
10. Affluent
(1) Famous (2) Insignificant (3) Poor (4) Skilled
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Directions (Questions 11, 12): Pick the odd word out from the following
11. (1) Amiable (2) Affable (3) Jovial (4) Adversary
12. (1) Garrulous (2) Taciturn (3) Verbose (4) Rambling
Directions (questions 13 to 17): Read the given passage and answer the questions by ticking the correct option form the given options.
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If we look back on the great political revolutions and the great technological revolutions (both of which are clues to the range of humankind’s capacities and possibilities), we see a striking contrast. Political revolutions, generally speaking, have revealed man’s organized purposefulness, his social conscience, his sense of justice, the aggressive assertive side of his nature. Technological change, invention and innovation have tended, rather, to reveal his play instincts, his desire and his ability to go where he has never gone, to do what he has never done. While the one shows his willingness to sacrifice in order to fulfill his plans the other his willingness to sacrifice in order to pursue his quest. Many of the peculiar successes and special problems of our time come from our efforts to assimilate these two kinds of activities. We have tried to make government more experimental and to make technological change more purposive, more focused, more planned than ever before.
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13. A striking contrast is established in the passage between
(1) mankind’s capacities and possibilities
(2) man’s maturity and irresponsibility
(3) political and technological revolutions achieved by man
(4) peculiar successes and special problems of our time
14. Man’s willingness to sacrifice to fulfil his plans is attributed to
(1) his organized purposefulness (2) his kind nature
(3) his sense of responsibility (4) his ability to go where he has never gone
15. Technological revolutions reveal man’s
(1) aggressive side of his nature (2) assertive side of his nature
(3) play instincts (4) psychological maturity
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16. Man’s assertive and aggressive side of his nature is expressed in
(1) technological revolutions (2) political revolutions.
(3) his social conscience (4) his play instincts
17. According to the author our peculiar successes and special problems are a result of
(1) Our ability to experiment (2) Man’s organized purposefulness.
(3) Our efforts to assimilate political and technological activities.
(4) Desire to fulfil our plans.
Directions (Question 18, 19): Choose the appropriate option that conveys the meaning of the given idiom.
18. Make hay while the Sun shines
(1) To lay down your arms (2) To understand your own capacity
(3) To construct fine employ of living (4) To make good use of opportunities
19. Blow your own trumpet
(1) To be patient with somebody (2) To praise your own abilities
(3) To stop fighting (4) To make your decision
19. Blow your own trumpet
(1) To be patient with somebody (2) To praise your own abilities
(3) To stop fighting (4) To make your decision
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Directions (Question 20, 21, 221 A sentence has been split into 6 parts. The first and last parts are marked ‘a’ while the rest are marked P,Q,R,S. Choose the correct combination to complete a meaningful sentence.
20 a: Love is one of the P: It may, if not
Q: well regulated and controlled R: But, like all strong passions
S: earliest of human passions b: lead us into misery.
(1) RSQP (2) QRSP (3) SRPQ (4) QSRP
21. a: Many satellites P and very much
Q: besides the Moon R: made by man
S: are the artificial satellites b: smaller than the Moon,
(1) QRSP (2) QSRP (3) SRPQ (4) RSQP
22. a: Some of the P: than the
Q: other patrons are R: even more
S: of a problem b: theatre itself.
(1) QRSP (2) QSRP (3) SRPQ (4) RSGP
Directions (Question 23,24,25): Fill in the blanks with a suitable alternative from the options given under each sentence.
23. He went __________sea alone
(1) in (2) to (3) into (4) on
24. Like humans, zoo animals must have a dentist _________ their teeth.
(1) fill (2) filled (3) filling (4) to be filled
25. The hotel was not too expensive ___________.
(1) Was it? (2) Wasn’t it? (3) is it? (4) Isn’t it?
Directions (Question 26,27,28) : In the given questions, the sentences are divided into four parts. Some of the sentences have grammatical errors and some have none. The arts are marked 1,2,3,4, Pick out the part that has an error.
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26. A cup of coffee/ is an excellent compliment/ to smoked salmon/ no error
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
27. He who has suffered most/ for the cause/ let him speak/no error
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
28. It is time you/ decide on your next/ course of action/no error
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Directions (Question 29,30) : In the given questions, a sentence has been written in four different ways and numbered 1, From the four options, choose the one, which conveys complete meaning and is grammatically correct.
29. (1) She politely asked him to leave her hand.
(2) She politely asked him to give up her hand.
(3) She politely asked him to let go her hand.
(4) She politely asked him to release her hand
30. (1)The Chairperson brushed out my suggestion
(2)The Chairperson brushed over my suggestion
(3) The Chairperson brushed aside my suggestion.
(4)The Chairperson brushed about my suggestion
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Directions (Question 31 to 35) : In the given passage, some words have been left out and numbered 31, 32, 33, 34 & 35. Read the passage to understand what it is about. Thereafter, fill in the blanks with a word from the given options. Hawthorne had not (31) this sudden dismissal. He (32) thought they would scold him as usual (33) now he had no job What (34) he to tell Sophia? Sophia (35) Hawthorne’s wife.
31. (1) is (2) and (3) be (4) was
32. (1) Has (2) was (3) did (4) had
33. (1) and (2) because (3) but (4) since
34. (1) will (2) was (3) is (4) could
35. (1) selected (2) attempted (3) expected (4) detected
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Directions (Question 36, 37): In the given quest group of words is given that can be substituted by a single word. From the four different options, choose the that is most appropriate.
36. The animal life of a particular region
(1) Floral (2) Museum (3) Zoo (4) Fauna
37. Clues available at a sence
(1) circumstantial (2) derivative (3) Inferential (4) suggestive
Directions (Question 38, 39, 40, 41) For the given Idiom/ Phrase, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
38. A damp squib
(1) rainy weather (2) a disappointing result
(3) skirt in a laundry (4) None of the above
39. To put up with
(1) to accommodate (2) to adjust
(3) to understand (4) to tolerate
40. Yeoman’s service
(1) medical help (2) excellent work
(3) social work (4) hard work
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41. To take to heart
(1) to be encouraged (2) to grieve over
(3) to like (4) to hate
Directions (Question 42, 43, 44, 45) : Fill in the blanks with the appropriate preposition.
42. The child fell _______ his bicycle.
(1) off (2) by (3) from (4) down
43. It is O’clock __________ my watch.
(1) on (2) at (3) in (4) by
44. Akbar ruled _______ India very successfully.
(1) in (2) on (3) over (4) by
45. The old man died __________heart failure.
(1) off (2) of (3) with (4) from
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Directions (Questions 46, 47) Find the correctly spelt word.
46. (1) Fragrent (2) Fragmant
(3) Flurocent (4) Flamboyant
47. (1) Volumenous (2) Voluptous
(3) Voceferous (4) Virtuous
Directions (Questions 48, 49, 50): Fill in the blanks with the correct option.
48. Joseph __________ from his job because he was ________ for promotion
(1) left, decline (2) gave up, refused
(3) left asked (4) resigned sidelined
49. I _________ that my pocket __________ picked.
(1) realized had been (2) had realized; was
(3) realized; is (4) had realized, has been
50. The two parties have to __________ each other’s sensibilities and _______ towards a win-win merger
(1) seek move (2) develop, look
(3) respect work (4) accept develop
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SECTION II: GENERAL AWARENESS (50 Questions- 200 marks)
51 Number of States on the “Tropic of Cancer” are:
(1)5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
52. Fundamental duties enumerated in the Constitution of India are:
(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 13
53. Which state has its own Constitution?
(1) J&K (2) Punjab (3) Arunachal (4) Sikkim
54. 1 Anna was what part of Rupee:
(1)1/4 (2) 1/12 (3) 1/16/ (4) 1/20
55. Sleet is a wet mixture of:
(1) Smoke & Fog (2) Dew & Frost
(3) Snow & Ice (4) Lamp Black & Charcoal
56. High Court Judges in India are appointed by:
(1)President (2) Prime Minister
(3) Chief Justice (4) Governor
57. Lieutenant General’s equivalent rank in the Navy is:
(1) Admiral (2) Vice Admiral
(3) Rear Admiral (4) Commodore
58. NCC was established in:
(1) 1947 (2) 1948 (3) 1949 (4) 1950
59. Number of Schedules in the Constitution of India are:
(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 12
60. In Sikh history who was the famous son of Maha Singh?
(1) Guru Nanak (2) Ranjit Singh
(3) Banda Bahadur (4) Bhai Mani Singh
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61. Which of the following Gurus was imprisoned in the Gwalior Fort?
(1) Guru Gobind Singh (2) Guru Har Rai
(3) Guru Hargobind (4) Guru Teg Bahadur
62. Which Indian State has the hilly tribal group as Garo Khasis
(1) Nagaland (2) Mizoram
(3) Meghalaya (4) AP
63. Which of the following rivers does not originate in the Western Ghats?
(1) Cauvery (2) Krishna
(3) Godavan (4) Mahanadi
64. Ashoka made which religion as the state religion around 260 BC?
(1) Buddhism (2) Jainism
(3) Zoroastrianism (4) Hinduism
65. Which UT got the statehood in 1985?
(1) Russia (2) Assam
(3) Arunachal (4) None
66. Government of Free India was established by Netaji Subhash Chander Bose in :
(1) Russia (2) India
(3) Singapore (4) Japan
67. SPIC MACAY is a society that deals with
(1) Classical Music and Culture (2) Nuclear Science
(3) Study of Medicine (4) Plastics
68. India’s Viceroy during the ‘Dandi March was:
(1) Rippon (2) Linlithgow (3) Irwin (4) Dalhousie
69. Sri Lanka is separated from India by
(1) Palk Strait (2) Indian Ocean (3) Arabian Sea (4) Bay of Bengal
70. Kautilya the great ancient teacher taught in the University of:
(1) Taxila (2) Patliputra (3) Ayodhya (4) Agra
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71. A cyclone results when air flows from
(1) High temperature area to low temperature area
(2) Low temperature area to hi temperature area
(3) High pressure area to low pressure area
(4) low pressure are high pressure area
72. Which Pakistani General was the Senior Most to lead the Surrender to Indian Army in 1971:
(1) Yahya Khan (2) Niazi
(3) Yakub Khan (4) Ayub Khan
73. Which disease is known as the “Silent Killer”?
(1) Low blood Pressure (2) High Blood Pressure
(3) Tuberculosis (4) None,
74. Which is a biological disaster?
(1) Bomb Blast (2) Bird Flu (3) Volcano (4) Tsunami
75. East India Company was established in:
(1) 1500 (2) 1600 (3) 1700 (4) 1800
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76. The metal which is most extracted is
(1) Gold (2) Iron (3) Copper (4) Aluminium
77. Which dam stops floods from Nile River in Egypt?
(1) Aswan (2) Nurek (3) Deriner (4) Dez
78. Sumatra is a part of
(1) Indonesia (2) Malaysia (3) Thalland (4) Laos
79. Largest Teak producing Asian country is
(1) India (2) Bangladesh (3) Malaysia (4) Myanmar
80. Sambhar and Cheetal are a species of
(1) Deer (2) Giraffe (3) Leopard (4) Rhinoceros
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81. Kochi is to Ernakulam same as Secundrabad is to
(1) Jalahll (2) Hyderabad (3) Bangalore (4) Chennai.
82. Bandicoot is a species of
(1) Rat (2) Snake (3) Tortoise (4) Frog
83. UAE is a group of how many cities?
(1) 7 (2) 9 (3) 5 (4) 6
84. HDI stands for
(1) Health Department of India (2) Health Definition Index
(3) Human Development Index (4) Human Resources Department of India
85. Primary aim of Green Revolution in India was
(1) To provide greenery by increasing area under forest cover
(2) Modemnisation of agriculture through science and technology
(3) To introduce Japanese method of Paddy cultivation
(4) To crease the extent of cash crop cultivation
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86. Which European nation is below the sea level?
(1) England (2) Holland
(3) Norway (4) Austria
87. Four phases of moon are first Quarter Last Quarter Full Moon and?
(1) Fresh Moon (2) New Moon
(3) Current Moon (4)No Moon
88. Duncan Passage is a strait between
(1) Minicoy & Amindivi (2) Minicoy & Maldives
(3) Little Andaman & Car Nicobar (4) South Andaman & Little Andaman
89. Which of the following sectors contributes largest share to India’s National Income?
(1)Primary Sector (2) Secondary Sector
(3) Tertiary Sector (4) None of these
90. Which of the following are the most serious economic problems of the India?
(1) Poverty & Unemployment (2) Stagnation & Poverty
(3) Unemployment & Corruption (4) Underdevelopment & Unemployment
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91. What is true for Income Tax in Union Budget 2016-17?
(1)No change in Tax sales
(2) Maximum Tax rate increased to 40%
(3) Income upto Rs. 4 lakh made tax free
(4) 20% tax is levied between income range of Rs. 6 lakh to Rs. 10 lakh
92. Which of the following terms stands for opening economy to world by removing protective barriers against free flow of trade, technology & investment among countries?
(1) Liberalisation (2) Globalisation
(3) Privatisation (4) None
93. Ringing Bells is a company which was in the news in February 2016. The reason was
(1) It launched a scheme to provide smart phone just for Rs. 251
(2) It is engaged in private virtual talk technology
(3) It was involved in money laundering
(4) It has plan to produce a mega epic film
94. RBI has given in-principle approval for the establishment of Payment Bank These payment banks are not allowed to
(1) Accept deposits (2) issue debit card
(3) issue credit card (4) Earn a commission per transaction
95. What is the harm from the depletion of Earth’s ozone layer?
(1) The average temperature earth’s surface will increase gradually
(2) The oxygen content of the atmosphere decrease
(3) increased amount of Ultra violet radiation will reach earth’s surface
(4) Sea levels will rise as the polar ice caps will gradually melt
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96. Match the List-II with List-I and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
List I
(a) Green Revolution (b) White Revolution
(c) Yellow Revolution (d) Blue Revolution
List II
(A) Off Seeds (B) Food grains
(C) Fish and Aquaculture (D) Milk and milk products
Codes
(1) BADC (2) BDAC
(3) CDAB (4) ABCD
97. Smog is formed by
(1)Snow and Frog (2) Hale and/Smoke is
(3) Smoke and Fog (4) Dust and Fog
98. Archipelago is a
(1) Sea Bird (2) A large group of islands
(3) A mammal (4) A big forest area
99. A huge land mass that juts into the sea is called
(1) Bay (2) Strait
(3) Peninsula (4) Island
100. Which of the following important Head Quarters is stationed in Shimla?
(1) Army Head Quarters (2) Army Training Command
(3) Westem Army Command (4)Joint Army Air Force Command
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| 1. (2) | 21. (2) | 41. (2) | 61. (3) | 81. (2) |
| 2. (2) | 22. (1) | 42. (1) | 62. (3) | 82. (1) |
| 3. (1) | 23. (3) | 43. (4) | 63. (2) | 83. (1) |
| 4. (3) | 24. (3) | 44. (3) | 64. (1) | 84. (3) |
| 5. (2) | 25. (1) | 45. (2) | 65. (3) | 85. (2) |
| 6. (3) | 26. (2) | 46. (4) | 66. (3) | 86. (2) |
| 7. (2) | 27. (3) | 47. (4) | 67. (1) | 87. (2) |
| 8. (4) | 28. (2) | 48. (4) | 68. (3) | 88. (4) |
| 9. (3) | 29. (3) | 49. (1) | 69. (1) | 89. (1) |
| 10. (3) | 30. (3) | 50. (3) | 70. (1) | 90. (1) |
| 11. (4) | 31. (4) | 51. (2) | 71. (3) | 91. (1) |
| 12. (2) | 32. (4) | 52. (1) | 72. (2) | 92. (2) |
| 13. (4) | 33. (3) | 53. (1) | 73. (2) | 93. (1) |
| 14. (1) | 34. (2) | 54. (3) | 74. (2) | 94. (3) |
| 15. (3) | 35. (3) | 55. (3) | 75. (2) | 95. (3) |
| 16. (2) | 36. (4) | 56. (1) | 76. (2) | 96. (2) |
| 17. (3) | 37. (1) | 57. (2) | 77. (1) | 97. (3) |
| 18. (4) | 38. (2) | 58. (2) | 78. (1) | 98. (2) |
| 19. (2) | 39. (1) | 59. (4) | 79. (3) | 99. (3) |
| 20. (3) | 40. (3) | 60. (2) | 80. (1) | 100. (2) |
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